beginner
01-14-2010, 04:20 AM
Good morning,
if one want to compare two different populations - each having different units - it makes sense to standardize the two data sets to compare for instance the mean or standard deviation between the two populations.
Am I right in assuming that if one compares the two data sets by means of the coefficient of variation it is not necessary to standardize both populations because the coeff. of var. is already a normalized measure of dispersion?!
Many thanks
beginner
if one want to compare two different populations - each having different units - it makes sense to standardize the two data sets to compare for instance the mean or standard deviation between the two populations.
Am I right in assuming that if one compares the two data sets by means of the coefficient of variation it is not necessary to standardize both populations because the coeff. of var. is already a normalized measure of dispersion?!
Many thanks
beginner