Gee Smarty
12-24-2010, 03:28 AM
Hey everyone,
I have a set of data (n=3000, 48% males and 52% females) from a cross sectional study.
I got 20 explanatory variables (let's say X1, X2, X3,.... X20) and binary outcome. I conducted logistic regression for whole (male and female), male-only, and female-only population.
From fully adjusted logistic regression (adjusted for all explanatory variables), I found only X1 and X2 were significantly associated (p<0.05) with the outcome for the whole (males and females) and female-only population.
But, for male-only population, none of the explanatory variables were significantly associated with the outcome.
Do you have any thoughts why there's no variable were significant among males?
I would appreciate your help.
Ooh, yeah, and wish you a very mery christmas too!
Gee
I have a set of data (n=3000, 48% males and 52% females) from a cross sectional study.
I got 20 explanatory variables (let's say X1, X2, X3,.... X20) and binary outcome. I conducted logistic regression for whole (male and female), male-only, and female-only population.
From fully adjusted logistic regression (adjusted for all explanatory variables), I found only X1 and X2 were significantly associated (p<0.05) with the outcome for the whole (males and females) and female-only population.
But, for male-only population, none of the explanatory variables were significantly associated with the outcome.
Do you have any thoughts why there's no variable were significant among males?
I would appreciate your help.
Ooh, yeah, and wish you a very mery christmas too!
Gee