Statistics Help @ Talk Stats Forum - Regression Analysis
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Linear regression, linear models, nonlinear regressionenThu, 27 Jul 2017 04:02:41 GMTvBulletin60http://www.talkstats.com/images/misc/rss.pngStatistics Help @ Talk Stats Forum - Regression Analysis
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Logistic regression - a very simple question
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Wed, 26 Jul 2017 22:54:38 GMTI have a question regarding the likelihood. I am trying to assess the likelihood of being in a family history positive group (FH+) on alcoholism (0...I have a question regarding the likelihood. I am trying to assess the likelihood of being in a family history positive group (FH+) on alcoholism (0 means no family history of alcoholism, 1 means family history of alcoholism), based on the amount of drinking (a continuous variable). Amount of drinking is standardized, such that 0 is the means with +-1SD as a unit; amount of drinking is continuous.
I get these results from logistic regression:
Beta intercept -1.163,
Beta alcohol consumption -0.535,
OR 0.586.
I have trouble interpreting the results. Is this interpretation correct?

the odds of FH+ decreased by a factor of 0.586 for a unit (i.e., 1 SD) increase in alcohol consumption. In other words, the odds of FH+ increased by a factor of 1.706 (dividing 1 by the OR estimate gives the estimate for the reciprocal odds; 1/0.586 = 1.706) for a 1 SD decrease in alcohol consumption. Or, an adult scoring 1 SD below the mean was 1.706 times more likely to be in the FH+ group than an adult with a score of 0 (the mean)?

Now, I wanna say this, but in the likelihood (probability) language because rarely do people understand ORs. Can someone tell me how to interpret these results in probabilities?
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