cmli4: The answer is obvious. Just look at the F-Ratio in my previous response to your question:
http://www.talkstats.com/showthread.php?t=13631
When we are testing the eqaulity of two coefficient in the model .
let's say B2=B3
H_0:B2=B3
H_A:B2 not equal B3
Assume using F-test
Why should we force B2 and B3 to be equal by summing up variable X2 and X3 .
Then do regression .
Why don't we multiply X2 and X3 instead???And run a regression ,then use it as our restricted model??
cmli4: The answer is obvious. Just look at the F-Ratio in my previous response to your question:
http://www.talkstats.com/showthread.php?t=13631
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