As the topic says.
If we have two events A and B respectively, is it possible that P(A n B) != P(B n A)?
This isn't a homework question but its something i need to clarify for another question im working on.
If i used a venn diagram and drew out A, B and looked at their intersection, shouldn't B n A be the same thing as A n B? After all an intersection is where both events share the same possibilities, so whatever possibility that A has, B has as well and vice versa.