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Thread: Covariance and Correlation for Regression Model

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    Covariance and Correlation for Regression Model



    I've been looking over some regression models lately and I came across one which, although similar, differs from the "standard" simple linear model. I was hoping somebody could provide some assistance with some properties that I'm confused with.

    Assuming the regression form:

    y_{i} = \beta_{0} + \beta_{1}(x_{i}-\bar{x}) + \epsilon_{i}

    with expected value:

    {\bf E}[y_{i}] = \hat{\beta}_{0} + \hat{\beta}_{1}(x_{i}-\bar{x})

    where \hat{\beta}_{0} = \bar{y} and \hat{\beta}_{1} = \frac{S_{XY}}{S_{XX}}

    and, from what I've worked out:

    {\bf E}[\hat{\beta}_{0}] = \beta_{0}, {\bf E}[\hat{\beta}_{1}] = \beta_{1}

    and:
    \text{Var}(y_{i}) = \sigma^{2}, \text{Var}(\hat{\beta}_{0}) = \frac{\sigma^{2}}{n^{2}}**, \text{Var}(\hat{\beta}_{1}) = \frac{\sigma^{2}}{S_{XX}}**

    **These could be wrong.

    How can it be shown that:

    (a)

    \text{Cov}(y_{i}, \hat{\beta}_{1}) = \frac{\sigma^{2}(x_{i}-\bar{x})}{\sum (x_{i}-\bar{x})^{2}}

    I know that the covariance formula is given by:

    \text{Cov}(y_{i}, \hat{\beta_{1}}) = {\bf E}[(y_{i} - {\bf E}[y_{i}])(\hat{\beta_{1}} - {\bf E}[\hat{\beta_{1}}])]

    However, I'm confused about how to manipulate this formula to yield the desired result.

    (b)

    \text{Corr}(\hat{\beta}_{0}, \hat{\beta}_{1}) = 0

    Here, I know that if it can be shown that:

    \text{Cov}(\hat{\beta_{0}}, \hat{\beta}_{1}) = 0

    it follows that:

    \text{Corr}(\hat{\beta}_{0}, \hat{\beta}_{1}) = 0

    However, as in part (a), I'm confused about how to develop the covariance formula accordingly.

    Thanks!
    Last edited by Rupert; 10-30-2012 at 09:06 PM. Reason: Additional information. improved formatting.

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