Hi all,
I could use some help understanding the following proof so please feel free to pitch in!
Consider any random variable with distribution function . Then given we can bound in the following way. Because the lower limit of is 0 and its upper limit is 1, we can find such that:
for and for
Let then
What I need help understanding is where the inequality in the last line comes from precisely. I know it has something to do with the bounds we set up above but I cannot figure it. I am a beginner so please explain in detail. Thanks.
JohnK (10-02-2013)
JohnK (10-02-2013)
JohnK (10-02-2013)
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