Hi, I work in a lab where we routinely use people's cells in studies, comparing the effect of different treatments on those cells. We use the cells from one person as an n of 1 across all treatments. Even though different flasks of cells are exposed to the different treatments, those cells all come from the same person and I commonly see that the errors are NOT independent between treatment groups e.g. cells from a subject that have a high baseline response will generally have a higher response in the other treatment groups as well.

So my question is, even though each flask of cells isn't exposed to each level of the IV, should this still be considered a repeated measures situation?

Thank you for your time, I've tried to find answers online and in textbooks but have come up short.

Hefin