If is a sequence of random variables independent and is Binomial(n,p) with 0<p<1 and either for all n
1) Show that
I know that
But I can not get this result at all, I've tried using characteristic function but also yielded nothing.
Please take a look here too http://www.talkstats.com/showthread....-Limit-Theorem
Last edited by askazy; 12-07-2014 at 08:41 AM.
A sequence of random variables is nothing special; as you can have a sequence of numbers, a sequence of functions etc. for different mathematical objects.
In this question you have typed that all random variables in this sequence have the common distribution (and they are independent). And this is often abbreviated as i.i.d. sequence of random variables. As they have the common distribution, they share the common mean and all other moments / properties as well.
Of course for the sequence is not the same.
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