I'm not clear what your question is exactly.
I have n independent trials with different success probabilities θi for i=1 to i=n
I want to show that...
μ=nθ with θ= (1/n) ∑θi for i=1 to i=n
I guess this makes sense intuitively for θ to be the average of all θi. Can someone help show this? The proof for a constant θ is straight forward. I'll leave the variance for another day.
Edit: To be clear, this is not a homework exercise. I found it in my book while reviewing the material. I attached the problem below.
Last edited by Buckeye; 07-21-2016 at 03:42 PM.
I'm not clear what your question is exactly.
I don't have emotions and sometimes that makes me very sad.
I apologize. I'm new to this website. The attached problem is courtesy of John E. Freund's Mathematical Statistics with Applications eighth edition. It's an undergraduate text. I found the problem interesting because from what I know of the binomial distribution, the success probability is held constant.
Buckeye (07-21-2016)
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