I don't understand your first comment. Do you mean "There is no point in doing" these tests if there is a statistical difference between them?
Regarding your second comment, the measurements are statistically different, they do correlate, but whether they agree closely is a practical decision you must make.
Sorry for the late reply.
For the first question yes that is correct (sorry if I wasn't clear) but my question was ´is there a point or is it acceptable (are we allowed) to do these test if there is a statistical difference between them?
in many cases people do the Bland-Altmann test to prove that there is no difference between the old and the new measurement method. But, of course, if there is a significant difference berween the methods, we would want to know.
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