Here's the problem:

The probability of flu symptoms for a person not receiving any treatment is 0.035. In a clinical trial of a common drug used to lower cholesterol, 38 of 1021 people treated experienced flu symptoms. Assuming the drug has no effect on the likelihood of flu symptoms, estimate the probability that "at least" 38 people experienced flu symptoms.

I know for "at least" probabilities you find the complement, but since the question isn't asking for the opposite of having flu symptoms, would I still use it? Plus, my dealings with "at least" probabilities have dealt with "at least 1" where I use 1-P. How do I figure "at least 38"?