Dear readers,
I have a problem saying:
"Let [X1, X2,....] be a sequence of random variables such that Xn is distributed according to a Bernoulli distribution with parameter (1/n), with n an integer number.
Prove that Xn converges in probability to 0, by obtaining P(|Xn| > Epsolon).
Could you tell me if the solution I provided is correct?
Have you more exercises on this kind of convergence?
Thank you in advance for your future answer
Francesco
I have a problem saying:
"Let [X1, X2,....] be a sequence of random variables such that Xn is distributed according to a Bernoulli distribution with parameter (1/n), with n an integer number.
Prove that Xn converges in probability to 0, by obtaining P(|Xn| > Epsolon).
Could you tell me if the solution I provided is correct?
Have you more exercises on this kind of convergence?
Thank you in advance for your future answer
Francesco
