Hi,
We are conducting research on the relationship between self esteem and aggression. We have aggression scores and self esteem scores and we want to find out if there is a significant difference in the relationship by gender.
We have ran a pearson's correlation for the relationship for the entire sample (regardless of gender) however are confused whether spearman or pearson is more suitable for the analysis by gender. The distribution for the entire sample for aggression and self esteem scores is normal however when analysed by gender, the distribution of the female aggression scores is not normally distributed however the female self esteem and both male aggression and self esteem are normal. Should a spearman be used for the correlation for female self esteem and aggression as i understand spearman should be used when assumptions of pearsons are violated? More over, pearsons assumes linearity of the data and although there is a very weak linear relationship between variables we are unsure as to whether the linearity assumption is met or not for Pearson. The sample sizes are also rather small (female = 38, male = 36) which may impact using Spearman's.
However we also wish to perform fishers Z test for significant difference between the relationship for males and females however the distribution of male scores was normal and therefore we believe pearsons would be acceptable whilst spearman might be more acceptable for the female correlation - we are not sure whether it would be acceptable to compare these correlations since they are deduced from different methods?
I have attached visualisation of the relationships to help what i am trying to say, i hope i have explained it well enough.
Any help will be greatly appreciated
Thank-you

We are conducting research on the relationship between self esteem and aggression. We have aggression scores and self esteem scores and we want to find out if there is a significant difference in the relationship by gender.
We have ran a pearson's correlation for the relationship for the entire sample (regardless of gender) however are confused whether spearman or pearson is more suitable for the analysis by gender. The distribution for the entire sample for aggression and self esteem scores is normal however when analysed by gender, the distribution of the female aggression scores is not normally distributed however the female self esteem and both male aggression and self esteem are normal. Should a spearman be used for the correlation for female self esteem and aggression as i understand spearman should be used when assumptions of pearsons are violated? More over, pearsons assumes linearity of the data and although there is a very weak linear relationship between variables we are unsure as to whether the linearity assumption is met or not for Pearson. The sample sizes are also rather small (female = 38, male = 36) which may impact using Spearman's.
However we also wish to perform fishers Z test for significant difference between the relationship for males and females however the distribution of male scores was normal and therefore we believe pearsons would be acceptable whilst spearman might be more acceptable for the female correlation - we are not sure whether it would be acceptable to compare these correlations since they are deduced from different methods?
I have attached visualisation of the relationships to help what i am trying to say, i hope i have explained it well enough.
Any help will be greatly appreciated
Thank-you

