But the results for the tests were different: the 2way ANOVA said there was no effect of T1 in group A, but the 1way comparing the 3 treatments said there was an effect between control and T1. Both used Bonferroni multiple comparison's test, and compared the cell mean with each row, same confidence interval. 2way ANOVA p-value was 0.4496, 1way ANOVA p-value was 0.0348.

What's going on, shouldn't the p-value be the same since the data is the same and the test is essentially testing the same thing? Am I missing something that is fundamental?