We all know the pvalues are affected by sample size. I've had profs claim that effect size is unaffected by sample size. But I'm thinking this may not be true. Let's take standardized mean difference with the pooled sd in the denominator:
where...
and where...
and also...
I'm not mathematician but there's a lot of n in those equations, maybe they cancel each other out somehow but it seems more logical to me that an effect size is indeed affected by n.
Thoughts?

where...

and where...

and also...

I'm not mathematician but there's a lot of n in those equations, maybe they cancel each other out somehow but it seems more logical to me that an effect size is indeed affected by n.
Thoughts?