Okay this is probably simple but I'm wanting to verify. A co-worker's wife is pregnant with their 8th baby (yeah. It's a lot) and we are all betting on if it will be a boy or girl. The thing is, of their seven, all the girls (4) were born in even years and all the boys (3) in odd years. I know the probability of it being either one is 50/50 but is it less likely to continue the same pattern having defied the odds with the existing pattern already? What is the probibilty that this baby being born in 2016 will be a girl? Is it still 50/50 or do we take the improbility of the pattern into account?