Hi,
after some time of using goodness of fit tests without really thinking about them, I came to this curious question:
Normally, it is recommended to have a Null hypothesis which you want to reject. (I.e. the opposite of what you want to show.) However, in Goodness of Fit this is not the case. And not being able to reject the Null hypothesis is in my understanding not really a strong case for the alternative hypotheses.
One might say that still the test is better than nothing. But what does it really get me if I can say that have no reason to reject the hypothesis that some data is Weibull distributed?
I guess this all boils down to the alpha vs. the beta error - is there a way to determine the probability (at least on a level of magnitude) for the latter?
Is there any mistake or omission in my reasoning?
after some time of using goodness of fit tests without really thinking about them, I came to this curious question:
Normally, it is recommended to have a Null hypothesis which you want to reject. (I.e. the opposite of what you want to show.) However, in Goodness of Fit this is not the case. And not being able to reject the Null hypothesis is in my understanding not really a strong case for the alternative hypotheses.
One might say that still the test is better than nothing. But what does it really get me if I can say that have no reason to reject the hypothesis that some data is Weibull distributed?
I guess this all boils down to the alpha vs. the beta error - is there a way to determine the probability (at least on a level of magnitude) for the latter?
Is there any mistake or omission in my reasoning?