I have produced three binary regression models, each showing the odds ratios (ORs) for an outcome (attendance versus non-attendance)

Each regression model looks at age in 10 year intervals and its effects on non-attendance of a particular health service.

The OR for patients between 0-10 was 0.52; (3 year intervals used here)

The OR for patients between 11-49 was 0.66;

The OR for patients over 50 was 1.15.

How does one interpret these values?

Is it correct to say that each average increase in 3 years, there is a 48% reduced risk for non-attendance? Does this also suggest that younger patients have an increased risk for non-attendance?

I would appreciate any advice, I'm quite confused by this!

Anyone?

Each regression model looks at age in 10 year intervals and its effects on non-attendance of a particular health service.

The OR for patients between 0-10 was 0.52; (3 year intervals used here)

The OR for patients between 11-49 was 0.66;

The OR for patients over 50 was 1.15.

How does one interpret these values?

Is it correct to say that each average increase in 3 years, there is a 48% reduced risk for non-attendance? Does this also suggest that younger patients have an increased risk for non-attendance?

I would appreciate any advice, I'm quite confused by this!

Anyone?

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