Is it a valid approach to look at a sample size of 1,000,000 men and conclude that if "body height" and "number of women attracted to them" are correlated, that there must be a real correlation between those two?

The assumption would have to be (imho) that we can look at these two metrics and how they are correlated *and assume that all other factors that might influence "number of women attracted to them" dont play a role, because the sample size is big enough*.

I'm really just wondering about the part in * *.

thanks!