My doubt is the following
'it's possible to compare means of two independent groups without considering standard deviations" ?
For example:
Control Group: mean +- standard deviation 50 +- 10 mm
Experimental Group: mean +- standard deviation 100 +- 30 mm
I am very surprised with the following conclusion made by a dentist friend mine
"Then we say there was an increase of mean 100% between groups !!"
(100 - 50) / 50 = 1 = 100%
However this conclusion seems odd to me, as it disregardes the variability of the data.
TIA
Ivan
'it's possible to compare means of two independent groups without considering standard deviations" ?
For example:
Control Group: mean +- standard deviation 50 +- 10 mm
Experimental Group: mean +- standard deviation 100 +- 30 mm
I am very surprised with the following conclusion made by a dentist friend mine
"Then we say there was an increase of mean 100% between groups !!"
(100 - 50) / 50 = 1 = 100%
However this conclusion seems odd to me, as it disregardes the variability of the data.
TIA
Ivan