I get these results from logistic regression:

Beta intercept -1.163,

Beta alcohol consumption -0.535,

OR 0.586.

I have trouble interpreting the results. Is this interpretation correct?

the odds of FH+ decreased by a factor of 0.586 for a unit (i.e., 1 SD) increase in alcohol consumption. In other words, the odds of FH+ increased by a factor of 1.706 (dividing 1 by the OR estimate gives the estimate for the reciprocal odds; 1/0.586 = 1.706) for a 1 SD decrease in alcohol consumption. Or, an adult scoring 1 SD below the mean was 1.706 times more likely to be in the FH+ group than an adult with a score of 0 (the mean)?

Now, I wanna say this, but in the likelihood (probability) language because rarely do people understand ORs. Can someone tell me how to interpret these results in probabilities?