I'm trying understand this paper on probability, parental age and miscarriage. I have no training in statistics. I'd really appreciate any help coming my way.

https://academic.oup.com/humrep/article/17/6/1649/2919231

There's a table within the article, or here:

https://academic.oup.com/view-large...iage; results of a multicentre European study

The table shows that the probability of miscarriage for couples where paternal age is 40+ and maternal age is 35+ is 6.73.

I realise this is a very basic question, but if the standard risk is probability 1 for the low risk group of under thirties, and this translates to 8% of those couples having a miscarriage (I'm getting this figure from other research), what is the risk for the older group as a percentage? It isn't just 6.73 multiplied by 8?

Thanks a lot for any help on this one!