Just trying to answer something in my mind...

If I had calculated (using poisson) the chances of various scores occurring in a football match, in theory, I could get a %age chance of a full time scoreline.

Likewise, I could perform all the same calculations for the half time score, and thus have the %age chance of a score at the end of the 1st Half.

Now my question is...if I had 'calculated' (use the term loosely!) that the chance of the score at half time being 1-0 to the home team as 16.4% and then the final score being 2-1 to the home team as being 8.8%...is the odds of BOTH of those being true calculated as .164 * .088 = .014432 (1.4432%)???

I appreciate there are questions on how I 'calculated' these percentages in the first place, but is all hypothetical really, just interested as to how you'd calculate the probability of that really!

Thanks so Much!

Chris