question about incidence and prevalence

I have a question about incidence and prevalence, so maybe it's off topic (if so can anyone recommended another forum?)

I have a paper that claims to measure incidence and prevalence in one study. They're calling any new cases that appeared (starting dialysis) in the most recent year an incident case, but ever case before a prevalent case. Sort of makes sense, but is this really measuring prevalence and incidence? I think some of the prevalent cases are later either dead or not on dialysis free it isn't clear that's the case. Then combining all the cases to assess relationships with variables.


Omega Contributor
The definitions are correct.

Any new case during a specified time period = incidence.
Any case at a specific time (cross-section) = prevalence.
Yes, of course, but seems to me that chosen arbitrarily in this particular study. Any case after the current year was taken as incident case just because it occurred more recently. All the cases occurred before the current year and were called prevalent. It's end-stage renal disease, so nobody comes off, they die. But I think they included all cases, whether dead or alive to analyze.
It's not published yet. I think all cases are alive at the time of analysis, so it's all prevalent cases, then the incidence per year is presented as the number of cases over a recent full year. I suppose that's legit.