Hello all,
I'm in need of guidance on proving that a sample of 1 (test is VERY expensive and destructive) is enough to conclude unbiased and objective results. I have tried the risk based approach on based on confidence and reliability, but I'm still obtaining a large sample size.
Does anyone have any other ideas for statistical tests to prove that the results from 1 test represent my population? By the way, it is assumed that my population is homogeneous, as the product is in the form of a powder.
Thank you! Any suggestions are welcome!
I'm in need of guidance on proving that a sample of 1 (test is VERY expensive and destructive) is enough to conclude unbiased and objective results. I have tried the risk based approach on based on confidence and reliability, but I'm still obtaining a large sample size.
Does anyone have any other ideas for statistical tests to prove that the results from 1 test represent my population? By the way, it is assumed that my population is homogeneous, as the product is in the form of a powder.
Thank you! Any suggestions are welcome!