The non-informative (flat) prior is mean = 0 and variance = 1,000ish, which to my knowledge when I apply the logistic function they translate to mean = 0.5 and var = 1.

Now for my informative prior: mean = 1 and var = 0.5, as an example, which translate to mean = 0.7 and var = 0.62.

Am I correct in presuming these are the equivalent of the beta coefficient values or are they on the probability scale now (which seems more likely), so not log odds yet. Thus if I exponeniate them I get a mean odds ratio of 2 and precision of 1.87 or do I p/(1-p) and then exponentiate? I am just trying to make sure I am using the priors that I thought I was!!

Thanks you.

Does my above thoughts seem correct or am I missing anything?