In previous analyses, we've found that there's normally one high and one low residual (e.g. 2.4, -2.8), indicating that obviously, the first is higher than the latter. However, for the most recent analysis, we just have one that is significant - condition 1 has a significant residual indicating it's lower than the expected values, whereas the other two conditions are not over 2 and are therefore non-significant.

My interpretation of this is that I can only really say (based on this analysis) that the outcome measure for condition 1 was significantly lower than would be the case if there were no association between the variables. However, my advisor is suggesting that if the outcome measure is lower for condition 1, I should also be able to say that conditions 2 and 3 are significantly higher than condition 1. This feels like it's going beyond what the analysis are able to say.

Is anyone able to help with this at all? Thanks in advance!