Why do they call it logistic regression when the inverse of the Logit is what is modelled? or am I wrong?
The inverse logit creates the sigmoidal curve where y max is 1 and y min is 0 and x can be from negative to positive infinity.
I feel stupid for asking this. I believe I have it wrong. Any explanation to clear this up for me will be appreciated, Thanks
The inverse logit creates the sigmoidal curve where y max is 1 and y min is 0 and x can be from negative to positive infinity.
I feel stupid for asking this. I believe I have it wrong. Any explanation to clear this up for me will be appreciated, Thanks